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NEW QUESTION # 32
When starting an investigation, which of the following must be done first?

• A. Secure the scene
• B. Seize all related evidence
• C. Interview the witnesses
• D. Notify law enforcement

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first thing that must be done when starting an investigation is to secure the scene. Securing the scene involves isolating and protecting the area where the incident occurred, as well as any potential evidence or witnesses. Securing the scene can help prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence, as well as any interference or obstruction of the investigation.

NEW QUESTION # 33
While reviewing system logs, a network administrator discovers the following entry:

Which of the following occurred?

• A. The PsExec services failed to execute.
• B. An attempt was made to access a remote workstation.
• C. A user was trying to download a password file from a remote system.
• D. A remote shell failed to open.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shows an entry from a system log that indicates a user was trying to download a password file from a remote system using PsExec. PsExec is a command-line tool that allows users to execute processes on remote systems. The entry shows that the user "administrator" tried to run PsExec with the following parameters: \192.168.1.100 -u administrator -p P@ssw0rd -c cmd.exe /c type c:\windows\system32\config\SAM > \192.168.1.101\c$\temp\sam.txt This means that the user tried to connect to the remote system with IP address 192.168.1.100 using the username "administrator" and password "P@ssw0rd", copy cmd.exe to the remote system, and execute it with the command "type c:\windows\system32\config\SAM > \192.168.1.101\c$\temp\sam.txt". This command attempts to read the SAM file, which contains hashed passwords of local users, and write it to a file on another system with IP address 192.168.1.101. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 8; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/downloads/psexec

NEW QUESTION # 34
A security analyst wants to capture large amounts of network data that will be analyzed at a later time. The packet capture does not need to be in a format that is readable by humans, since it will be put into a binary file called "packetCapture." The capture must be as efficient as possible, and the analyst wants to minimize the likelihood that packets will be missed. Which of the following commands will best accomplish the analyst's objectives?

• A. nmap -oA > packetCapture
• B. tcpdump -n packetCapture
• C. tcpdump -w packetCapture
• D. nmap -v > packetCapture
• E. tcpdump -a packetCapture

Answer: C

Explanation:
The tcpdump command is a network packet analyzer tool that can capture and display network traffic. The -w option specifies a file name to write the captured packets to, in a binary format that can be read by tcpdump or other tools later. This option is useful for capturing large amounts of network data that will be analyzed at a later time, as the question requires. The packet capture does not need to be in a format that is readable by humans, since it will be put into a binary file called "packetCapture". The capture must be as efficient as possible, and the -w option minimizes the processing and output overhead of tcpdump, reducing the likelihood that packets will be missed.

NEW QUESTION # 35
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

• A. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
• B. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
• C. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
• D. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions.
The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.

NEW QUESTION # 36
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?

• A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
• B. Enable SSO to the cloud applications
• C. Configure MFA with strict access
• D. Deploy an API gateway

Answer: A

Explanation:
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.

NEW QUESTION # 37
A security analyst discovers an ongoing ransomware attack while investigating a phishing email. The analyst downloads a copy of the file from the email and isolates the affected workstation from the network. Which of the following activities should the analyst perform next?

• A. Acquire a bit-level image of the affected workstation.
• B. Shut down the email server and quarantine it from the network.
• C. Search for other mail users who have received the same file.
• D. Wipe the computer and reinstall software

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.

NEW QUESTION # 38
A company's security team is updating a section of the reporting policy that pertains to inappropriate use of resources (e.g., an employee who installs cryptominers on workstations in the office). Besides the security team, which of the following groups should the issue be escalated to first in order to comply with industry best practices?

• A. Help desk
• B. Law enforcement
• C. Legal department
• D. Board member

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Legal department.
According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to "report and escalate security incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities" 1. This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on workstations, which may violate the company's policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly.

NEW QUESTION # 39
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines

Answer:

Explanation:
see th eanswer in explanation for this task
Explanation:
Answer below images

NEW QUESTION # 40
A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis?

• A. Code analysis
• B. Fuzzing
• C. Static analysis
• D. Reverse engineering

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reverse engineering is a technique that involves analyzing a binary file to understand its structure, functionality, and behavior. Reverse engineering can help security analysts perform malware analysis, vulnerability research, exploit development, and software debugging. Reverse engineering can be done using various tools, such as disassemblers, debuggers, decompilers, and hex editors.

NEW QUESTION # 41
An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all em-ployees were leaked online. Which of the following best describes the remedia-tion that could reduce the impact of this situation?

• A. Password encryption
• B. System hardening
• C. Multifactor authentication
• D. Password changes

Answer: C

Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a PIN, a fingerprint, or a one-time code. MFA can reduce the impact of a credential leak because even if the attackers have the usernames and passwords of the employees, they would still need another factor to access the organization's systems and resources. Password changes, system hardening, and password encryption are also good security practices, but they do not address the immediate threat of compromised credentials.

NEW QUESTION # 42
A security analyst at a company called ACME Commercial notices there is outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co. The site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. Which of the following is most likely true?

• A. A social engineering attack is underway
• B. The security operations center is performing a routine password audit.
• C. A new VPN gateway has been deployed
• D. This is a normal password change URL.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company's domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company's VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company's employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

NEW QUESTION # 43
During a cybersecurity incident, one of the web servers at the perimeter network was affected by ransomware.
Which of the following actions should be performed immediately?

• A. Quarantine the server
• B. Reimage the server
• C. Shut down the server.
• D. Update the OS to latest version.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Quarantining the server is the best action to perform immediately, as it isolates the affected server from the rest of the network and prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems or data. Quarantining the server also preserves the evidence of the ransomware attack, which can be useful for forensic analysis and law enforcement investigation. The other actions are not as urgent as quarantining the server, as they may not stop the ransomware infection, or they may destroy valuable evidence. Shutting down the server may not remove the ransomware, and it may trigger a data deletion mechanism by the ransomware. Reimaging the server may restore its functionality, but it will also erase any traces of the ransomware and make recovery of encrypted data impossible. Updating the OS to the latest version may fix some vulnerabilities, but it will not remove the ransomware or decrypt the data. Official References:
https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ransomware-guide
https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Ransomware_Executive_One-Pager_and_Technical_D
https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ive-been-hit-ransomware

NEW QUESTION # 44
A security analyst is analyzing the following output from the Spider tab of OWASP ZAP after a vulnerability scan was completed:

Which of the following options can the analyst conclude based on the provided output?

• A. The scanner executed a crawl process to discover pages to be assessed
• B. The scanning job did not successfully complete due to an out of scope error
• C. The scanning vendor used robots to make the scanning job faster
• D. The scanning job was successfully completed, and no vulnerabilities were detected

Answer: A

Explanation:
The output shows the result of using OWASP ZAP's Spider tab after a vulnerability scan was completed. The Spider tab allows users to crawl web applications and discover pages and resources that can be assessed for vulnerabilities. The output shows that the scanner discovered various pages under different directories, such as /admin/, /blog/, /contact/, etc., as well as some parameters and forms that can be used for testing inputs and outputs. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://www.zaproxy.org/docs/desktop/start/features/spider/

NEW QUESTION # 45
While performing a dynamic analysis of a malicious file, a security analyst notices the memory address changes every time the process runs. Which of the following controls is most likely preventing the analyst from finding the proper memory address of the piece of malicious code?

• A. Stack canary
• B. Address space layout randomization
• C. Data execution prevention
• D. Code obfuscation

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is
A) Address space layout randomization.
Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs2.
The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention (B) is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap3. Stack canary is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function's return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation (D) is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.

NEW QUESTION # 46
A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigation request Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified?

• A. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data.
• B. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.
• C. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data.
• D. Protect the device with a complex password.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the original data that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with a password, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being altered or deleted. Verified Reference: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page 3291

NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m.?

• A. MOU
• B. LOI
• C. KPI
• D. SLA

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable and specific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.

NEW QUESTION # 48
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