CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Verified Answers - Pass Your Exams For Sure! [2026]

Valid Way To Pass A+'s 220-1201 Exam

NEW QUESTION # 244
An office manager wants to scan a contract that is approximately 300 pages. The office manager is concerned the process will take a long time because each page must be scanned individually. Which of the following can the office manager use to increase the speed of scanning?

• A. Duplexing
• B. Automatic document feeder
• C. Flatbed scanner
• D. Orientation configuration

Answer: B

Explanation:
An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer, the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously, greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for high-volume tasks.
A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the "each page must be scanned individually" issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D) only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.

NEW QUESTION # 245
Which of the following RAID configurations can lose two drives without data loss?

• A. RAID 1
• B. RAID 5
• C. RAID 6
• D. RAID 0

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: RAID TypesRAID 6 supports dual- drive failure tolerance with dual parity, making it more fault-tolerant than RAID 5.

NEW QUESTION # 246
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?

• A. Lightweight OS
• B. Host OS required
• C. Bare-metal server installation
• D. Local configuration options

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, a Type 1 hypervisor is known as a bare-metal hypervisor because it installs directly onto the physical hardware of a system rather than running on top of a traditional operating system. This architecture allows the hypervisor to manage hardware resources-such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking-without the overhead of a host operating system. Because of this direct interaction with the hardware, Type 1 hypervisors typically provide higher performance, better scalability, and improved stability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.
Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V (bare-metal deployment), and Citrix XenServer. These hypervisors are commonly used in enterprise data centers, cloud infrastructure, and large virtualization environments where multiple virtual machines must run efficiently on a single physical server. # # Option A (Host OS required) describes a Type 2 hypervisor, such as VMware Workstation or Oracle VirtualBox, which runs on top of an existing operating system. Option C (Lightweight OS) may describe some hypervisor environments but is not the defining characteristic. Option D (Local configuration options) is also not specific to Type 1 hypervisors.
Therefore, the key characteristic that defines a Type 1 hypervisor is that it performs a bare-metal server installation directly on the hardware

NEW QUESTION # 247
A customer is able to print most documents with their USB inkjet printer, but the system is unresponsive when printing a certain report from a custom application. Nothing will print until the computer is restarted and the printer is power cycled. A technician remotes into the PC and confirms that the spooler stops working when this report is sent. After cleaning the spooler and reinstalling the drivers from the manufacturer's website, the issue persists. No other sites using the application report similar issues.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?

• A. The application has a bug that the developer needs to address.
• B. The manufacturer is curating content before it reaches the device to preserve ink.
• C. The system is using the PostScript language instead of the PCL.
• D. Personal preferences have changed and documents with graphics are now online-only

Answer: A

Explanation:
If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues--not app-specific failures.
This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.

NEW QUESTION # 248
Which of the following cable types is a video-only connection?

• A. USB-C
• B. HDMI
• C. DVI
• D. DisplayPort

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is D. DVI (Digital Visual Interface).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Technologies:
* DVI is primarily a video-only interface that transmits digital or analog video signals from a source (like a computer) to a display.
* Unlike HDMI or USB-C, DVI does not carry audio signals, making it strictly for video.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. DisplayPort: Supports video and audio as well as other features such as daisy-chaining multiple monitors.
* B. HDMI: Transmits both video and audio signals over a single cable.
* C. USB-C: Can carry data, power, and video/audio signals depending on the device and protocol (e.g., DisplayPort Alt Mode).
References:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives - Hardware: "Given a scenario, install and configure display devices and connections including VGA, DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and USB-C." Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Video Connectors and Display Technologies.

NEW QUESTION # 249
A systems administrator deploys BitLocker to all devices. However, one of the desktop PCs is not able to encrypt the boot drive. Which of the following should the administrator check?

• A. TPM
• B. RAM
• C. CPU
• D. HDD

Answer: A

Explanation:
BitLocker Drive Encryption in Windows requires aTrusted Platform Module (TPM)to encrypt the boot drive securely. The TPM is a dedicated microcontroller designed to secure hardware through integrated cryptographic keys. It validates system integrity during boot and securely stores the encryption keys. If BitLocker cannot find a TPM or it is disabled in BIOS/UEFI, drive encryption cannot proceed.
BitLocker can function without TPM using a USB startup key, but this compromises some security and is not recommended for managed enterprise environments.
Reference:
"CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Eleventh Edition" by Travis Everett and Andrew Hutz - Chapter 13, page 536-537.
"CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs" by Mark Soper - Chapter 13, page 446-447.
"CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 1, page 36-38.

NEW QUESTION # 250
A technician needs to configure an MX record. Which of the following will the technician use?

• A. Print server
• B. Proxy server
• C. DNS server
• D. Mail server

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technician will configure the MX record on a DNS server. An MX, or Mail Exchange, record is a DNS resource record that identifies the mail server responsible for accepting email for a particular domain. It can also include a priority value so that sending systems know which mail server to contact first when multiple servers are available. Although the record points to a mail server, it is created and maintained within the domain's DNS zone rather than directly on the mail server. A proxy server intermediates network requests and is unrelated to DNS email-routing records. A print server manages printers and print queues and has no role in email delivery. Therefore, the DNS management interface or authoritative DNS server for the domain is where the technician must create or modify the MX record.

NEW QUESTION # 251
A customer reports their tablet was recently dropped on the ground. The tablet has a small crack in one corner of the display, and it does not charge when plugged in. Which of the following should a technician do first?

• A. Replace the battery
• B. Run diagnostics on the digitizer
• C. Perform a hard restart.
• D. Inspect the USB-C port for damage

Answer: D

Explanation:
Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it's important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide, 11th Edition" by Mike Meyers - Chapter 25,
"Maintaining and Securing Mobile Devices", page 879.

NEW QUESTION # 252
A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.
The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.

Answer:

Explanation:
See the answer below in explanation part.
Explanation:
Answer of both steps below.
A group of wires with different colors AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

NEW QUESTION # 253
Which of the following display characteristics would be most important to ensure screen images appear the same as printed output?

• A. Refresh rate
• B. Pixel density
• C. Resolution
• D. Color gamut

Answer: D

Explanation:
Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen's colors match the printed output is critical.
Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.

NEW QUESTION # 254
Which of the following best describes the concept of a DHCP lease?

• A. A reservation of an IP configuration for a device on the network
• B. A definition of the scope of addresses to be assigned to a device on the network
• C. A translation of network names to IP addresses for a device on the network
• D. A temporary assignment of an IP configuration to a device on the network

Answer: D

Explanation:
A DHCP lease is a temporary assignment of an IP address and other network configuration parameters (such as DNS and gateway) to a device. The lease is renewed periodically to maintain the assignment.

NEW QUESTION # 255
A user reports that their desktop PC does not turn on. Which of the following components would most likely cause the issue?

• A. RAM
• B. CPU
• C. PSU
• D. GPU

Answer: C

Explanation:
If a desktopfails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is afaulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.
Option B (GPU):Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.
Option C (RAM):Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.
Option D (CPU):A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

NEW QUESTION # 256
A customer has bare-metal servers running Windows, Linux, and Unix. They want consolidation while maintaining isolation and compatibility. What should the technician recommend?

• A. Containers
• B. IaaS
• C. VDI
• D. Type 2 hypervisor

Answer: B

Explanation:
The customer wants to consolidate multiple physical servers running different operating systems, including Windows, Linux, and Unix, while maintaining strong isolation between systems. CompTIA A+ identifies Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the best model for hosting fully isolated virtual machines in a cloud environment, allowing each OS to run independently on its own virtual hardware.
IaaS provides virtualized computing resources-CPU, RAM, networking, and storage-while allowing the customer full control over the OS and application layer. This means Windows, Linux, and Unix VMs can coexist without compatibility concerns because each VM runs its native OS without modification.
Containers (B) are unsuitable because they share the host OS kernel, meaning they cannot run different OS families. A Type 2 hypervisor (C) is workstation-based and not designed for enterprise server consolidation.
VDI (D) provides user desktops, not server workload consolidation.
Thus, IaaS is the correct solution for compatibility, isolation, and consolidation across multiple OS types.

NEW QUESTION # 257
A marketing developer creates a new DNS record called promotions.comptia.org so it references the same IP address as

• A. CNAME
• B. TXT
• C. MX
• D. A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A CNAME record creates an alias that points one domain name to another domain name, allowing promotions.comptia.org to resolve to the same IP address as www.comptia.org indirectly.

NEW QUESTION # 258
A data center technician notices that one of the servers in a RAID 5 configuration is experiencing slow performance. A message in the server logs indicates a degraded RAID array. Which of the following actions should the technician take to address the degraded RAID array?

• A. Perform a disk defragmentation on all drives.
• B. Change the RAID configuration to RAID 6.
• C. Replace the failed drive with a new one.
• D. Reseat all existing drives to improve connection.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A degraded RAID 5 array indicates that one drive has failed, and replacing the failed drive allows the array to rebuild redundancy and restore normal performance.

NEW QUESTION # 259
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